'Philadelphia' in e.g. Spain is not suitable for veggies, but in the UK it's labeled "suitable for vegetarians". Consumers familiar with the UK product will wrongly assume that the 'Philadelphia' sold elsewhere is also suitable. As an IP lawyer, I think the EU trade mark registrations of 'Philadelphia' could be challenged on the basis that this inconsistent use is misleading. But such action might be counterproductive in the UK. Worth the risk?
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